سأعود لنشر أحدث الاسئلة المتاحة لامتحان الهيئة السعودية للتخصصات الطبية مختبرات 2026 ولكن يجب الإشارة لاهم التعديلات علي الامتحانات وقواعدها:
The current SCFHS SLLE applicant guide describes a 200-item, four-option, single-best-answer examination divided into two 100-question parts, with 120 minutes per part and a scheduled 30-minute break. It evaluates both knowledge and scenario-based interpretation, decision making, calculation, and laboratory-procedure competencies.
Total questions: 200
Format: Four options per question: A, B, C, D
Instruction: Select the one best answer
Part I: Questions 1–100; recommended time 120 minutes
Break: 30 minutes
Part II: Questions 101–200; recommended time 120 minutes
Candidate-facing sections: Questions only; answers are provided separately after Question 200.
BLUEPRINT
The following practice blueprint follows the public SLLE domain ranges. SCFHS notes that actual blueprint distributions may vary within stated tolerances; this simulation uses a balanced 200-question allocation.
| Domain | Target % | Practice count | Major topics represented |
|---|---|---|---|
| Blood Bank / Immunohematology | 15–20% | 34 | ABO/Rh, antibody testing, transfusion, HDFN, reactions, components |
| Urinalysis & Other Body Fluids | 5–10% | 14 | Urinalysis, sediment, CSF, synovial, serous fluid, semen, feces |
| Clinical Chemistry | 15–20% | 34 | Acid-base, electrolytes, renal/liver testing, endocrinology, toxicology |
| Hematology & Hemostasis | 15–20% | 34 | CBC, morphology, hemoglobinopathy, coagulation, flow cytometry |
| Immunology & Serology | 5–10% | 14 | Autoimmunity, immune response, viral and infectious serology |
| Histo- & Cytotechniques | 5–10% | 12 | Fixation, processing, staining, frozen sections, cytology |
| Microbiology | 15–20% | 34 | Bacteriology, mycology, virology, parasitology, AST |
| Laboratory Operations | 5–10% | 12 | QC, validation, safety, calculations, information systems |
| Patient Safety & Professionalism | 5–10% | 12 | Identification, critical values, confidentiality, ethics, communication |
| Total | 100% | 200 | — |
PART I
Questions 1–100
Recommended time: 120 minutes
1
A patient’s RBCs agglutinate with anti-A and anti-D reagents but not with anti-B reagent. The serum agglutinates B reagent cells but not A1 cells. What is the most likely ABO/Rh type?
A. A positive
B. A negative
C. AB positive
D. O positive
2
Which anticoagulant is most appropriate for routine complete blood count testing?
A. Sodium citrate
B. EDTA
C. Heparin
D. Sodium fluoride
3
A fresh urine specimen is strongly positive for nitrite and leukocyte esterase. Which finding is most consistent with these results?
A. Bacterial urinary tract infection
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Diabetic ketoacidosis
D. Hepatocellular jaundice
4
Which enzyme is most specific for acute pancreatitis when measured in serum?
A. Alkaline phosphatase
B. Creatine kinase
C. Lipase
D. Lactate dehydrogenase
5
A Gram-positive coccus produces catalase and coagulase. Which organism is most likely?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Enterococcus faecalis
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
6
Which blood component is most appropriate for a patient with active bleeding and a critically low fibrinogen concentration?
A. Packed red blood cells
B. Platelet concentrate
C. Fresh frozen plasma
D. Cryoprecipitate
7
The presence of Auer rods in blasts is most strongly associated with:
A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
B. Acute myeloid leukemia
C. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D. Hairy cell leukemia
8
A urine specific gravity of 1.035 is most likely caused by:
A. Marked dilute urine
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Increased dissolved solutes
D. Inability to concentrate urine
9
Which test is routinely used to monitor warfarin therapy?
A. Activated partial thromboplastin time
B. Prothrombin time expressed as INR
C. Thrombin time
D. Fibrinogen assay
10
Which immunoglobulin class crosses the placenta most efficiently?
A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM
11
A serum sample is visibly hemolyzed. Which analyte is most likely to be falsely increased?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Chloride
D. Calcium
12
Which organism is oxidase-positive and commonly produces blue-green pigment in culture?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Acinetobacter baumannii
13
The primary purpose of formalin fixation in histopathology is to:
A. Remove paraffin from tissue sections
B. Preserve tissue morphology and prevent autolysis
C. Stain cellular nuclei blue
D. Dehydrate tissue before embedding
14
A direct antiglobulin test detects:
A. Free antibody in patient serum
B. Antibody or complement attached to patient RBCs in vivo
C. ABO antibodies in donor plasma
D. Platelet-associated antibodies only
15
Which laboratory result most strongly supports iron deficiency anemia?
A. Increased ferritin
B. Increased transferrin saturation
C. Decreased total iron-binding capacity
D. Decreased ferritin
16
A CSF specimen is cloudy with elevated neutrophils, high protein, and low glucose. Which condition is most likely?
A. Viral meningitis
B. Bacterial meningitis
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
17
Which quality-control rule is violated when one control result exceeds the mean by more than 3 standard deviations?
A. 1_2s
B. 1_3s
C. 2_2s
D. R_4s
18
A patient has pH 7.28, pCO₂ 60 mmHg, and bicarbonate 27 mmol/L. What is the primary acid-base disorder?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
19
Which culture medium is selective for Gram-negative enteric bacilli and differentiates lactose fermenters?
A. Blood agar
B. MacConkey agar
C. Chocolate agar
D. Sabouraud agar
20
A platelet count is unexpectedly 28 × 10⁹/L, but the blood smear shows abundant platelet clumps. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Report severe thrombocytopenia immediately
B. Repeat the count using a citrate-anticoagulated specimen
C. Perform a bone marrow examination
D. Add platelet-poor plasma to the specimen
