الأخصائيين
أحياء دقيقة (ميكروبيولوجي) (3)
1.
Sporozite
vaccine in malaria has
a. Induces antibodies
b.
Prevents only
asexual forms with reproduction
c.
No effects on
clinical illness
d.
None of the
above
2.
Growing
trophozoites and schizonts are not seen in the peripheral blood in malaria due
to
a. P. falciparum
b.
P.vivax
c.
P.ovale
d.
P. malaria
3.
Thin
blood smear for malaria is used to identify
a.
Plasmodium
b.
Gametocytes
c. Type of parasite
d.
Schizont
4.
The
radical teatment of malaria is to half
a.
Gametocyte
b.
Exo-erythrocytic
phase
c. Erythrocytic phase
d.
All of these
5.
Symptoms
of acute aflatoxicosis
a.
Osteogenic
sarcoma
b.
Lymphatic
leukemia
c.
Malaise &
Anorexia
d. Both a and b
6.
Most
important Penicillium toxins are
a.
Citrinin
b.
Patulin
c.
Penicillic acid
d. All of the above
7.
Penicillic
acid is produced by
a.
A. ochraceus
b.
P. puberulum
c. Both a and b
d.
None of the
above
8.
Fungi
producting mycelium are called
a. Moulds
b.
Filamentous
fungi
c.
Both a and b
d.
Yeasts
9.
Candidiasis
is caused by
a. Candida albicans
b.
Aspergillus spp.
c.
E. floccosum
d.
M. audouinii
10.
Candida
albicans is capable to form
a.
Single cells
b. Pseudomonas
c.
Multicellular
forms
d.
None of these
11.
Aspergillus
fumigatus can infect
a.
A. niger
b.
A. fumigatus
c.
A. flavus
d. A. oryzae
12.
A.fumigates
can produce
a. Endotoxins
b.
Exotoxins
c.
Enterotoxins
d.
None of these
13.
The
drug of choice for dermal, oral and vaginal candidiasis is
a.
Griseofulvin
b.
Amphotericin B
c. Gentian violet
d.
Nystatin
14.
The
following Penicillium species are pathogenic except
a.
P. commune
b.
P. bicolor
c.
P. glaucum
d. P.notatum
15.
143.
Tinea versicolor is caused by
a.
Candida albicans
b. Malassezia furfur
c.
Aspergillus
niger
d.
None of these
16.
Causative
agent of Tinea nigra
a.
Malassezia
furfur
b. Exophiala werenekii
c.
Candida albicans
d.
Aspergillus
flavus
17.
Causative
agent of African histoplasmosis
a.
Histoplasma
capsulatum
b. Histoplasma duboissi
c.
Aspergillus
niger
d.
Aspergillus flavus
18.
Sun
ray fungus is
a. Actinomyces irraeli
b.
Chromoblastomycosis
c.
Streptomyces
griseus
d.
Cryptococcosis
19.
Which
agent on addition to a colony inhibits its growth and on removal the colony
regrows is?
a. Bacteriostatic
b.
Bactericidal
c.
Antibiotic
d.
Antiseptic
20.
Griseofluvin
is obtained from
a.
Penicillium
notatum
b.
Streptomyces
griseus
c. Penicillium griseofluvin
d.
None of these
21.
β-lactum ring
is present in
a.
Erythromycin
b. Penicillin
c.
Tetracyclins
d.
Chloramphenicol
22.
All
of the following drugs act on cell membrane, except
a.
Novobiocin
b.
Nystatin
c.
Chloromycetin
d. Colicins
23.
Cycloserine
related to the amino acid in structure
a.
Serine
b.
Aspergine
c. Alanine
d.
None of these
24.
In
Tuberculosis therapy mainly used antibiotic is
a.
Penicillin
b.
Streptomycin
c.
Chloramphenol
d. Cycloserine
25.
The
antibacterial action of penicillin is due to its effect on
a.
Cell membrane
permeability
b. Cell wall synthesis
c.
DNA synthesis
d.
Protein synthesis
26.
The
antibiotic produced from Bacillus subtilis is
a.
Vancomycin
b. Bactiracin
c.
Both a and b
d.
None of these
27.
bacitracin
sensitivity test is done for
a.
Pneunocci
b. Group ‘A’ Streptococci
c.
Gonococci
d.
Staphylococci
28.
The
effect of antibiotics on microorganisms is mainly due to
a.
Inhibition of
cell-wall synthesis
b.
Damage to the
cytoplasmic membrane
c.
Inhibition of
nucleic acid and protein synthesis
d. All of the above
29.
The
antibiotic acting on cell wall is
a.
Penicillin
b.
Bacitracin
c.
Cyclosporin
d. All of the above
30.
Erythromycin
belongs to chemical class of antibiotics
a.
â-lactose
b.
Tetracyclines
c. Macrolides
d.
Aminoglycosides
31.
Bacterial
resistance to antibiotics is transmitted by
a.
Transduction
b.
Transformation
c.
Mutation
d. Plasmids
32.
Erythromycin
inhibits protein synthesis by
a.
Attaching to 30
S ribosome unit
b. Attaching to 50 S unit or ribosome
c.
By the
attachment to t-RNA
d.
By the
attachment to m-RNA
33.
The
function of (THFA) Tetrahydrofolic acid coenzyme include
a.
Amino acid
synthesis
b.
Thymidine
synthesis
c.
Protein
synthesis
d. Both a and b
34.
Resistant
to drugs in tuberculosis develops by
a.
Transduction
b.
Transformation
c.
Conjugation
d. Mutation
35.
Which
of the following is penicillinase resistant acid labile penicillin?
a.
Amoxycillin
b.
Cloxacillin
c.
Carbenicillin
d. Methicillin
36.
Which
of the following does not inhibit cell wall synthesis?
a.
Penicillin
b.
Carbenicillin
c. Amikacin
d.
Vancomycin
37.
The
anti tumor antibiotics act by inhibiting
a.
Cell wall
synthesis
b.
RNA synthesis
c.
Cell membrane
synthesis
d. The DNA structure & function
38.
Drug
resistance to sulphonamides is due to
a.
Production of
PABA
b. Folic acid synthetase
c.
Drug alteration
d.
Low affinity for
drug synthesis by bacteria
39.
Amoxycillin
is combined with clavulanic acid to inhibit
a.
DNA gyrace
b.
Cell synthesis
c.
Protein
synthesis
d. β-lactamase enzymes
40.
Drug
of choice for methicillin resistant staph. Aureus is
a.
Ampicillin
b.
Erythromycin
c.
Neomycin
d. Vancomycin
41.
Nalidixic
acid activity is due to
a. The inhibition of DNA synthesis
b.
Inhibition of
protein synthesis
c.
The inhibition
of cell wall synthesis
d.
Both b and c
42.
The
best test for the susceptibility of a microorganism to antibiotics and other chemotherapeutic
agents:
a.
Tube-dilution
test
b.
Paper-disc
(antibiotic) test
c. Both a and b
d.
None of these
43.
The
smallest amount of chemotherapeutic agents required to inhibit the growth of the
organism in Vitro is known as
a. MIC (minimum inhibitory concentration)
b.
Thermal death
point (TDP)
c.
Death rate
d.
None of these
44.
Clear-zones
formation around antibiotic disc is due to
a.
Growth of the
bacterium surrounding of the disc
b. Lysis of the bacterial cells surrounding the disc
c.
The destruction
of paper disc (antibiotic)
d.
None of these
45.
Bacitracin
is obtained from
a. B. subtilis
b.
B. anthracis
c.
B. cereus
d.
B. anthracoid
46.
Vancomycin
is obtained from
a.
Streptococcus
species
b.
Aspergillus
niger
c. Streptomyces orientalis
d.
Bacillus
anthracis
47.
175.
â-lactum antibiotics are
a.
Penicillin
b.
Cephalosporin
c. Both a & b
d.
None of these
48.
Virus
causing mumps is also responsible for
a. Measles
b.
Hepatitis A
c.
Rabies
d.
Variola
49. Epidemic pleurodynia and myocarditis of new born infants
are both caused by
a. Group B cox sack virus
b.
Reovirus
c.
Polyomavirus
d.
Cytomegalovirus
50.
Human
papillomavirus causes following tumors:
a. Hepatic carcinoma
b.
Cervical cancer
c.
Condyloma
acuminatum
d.
Plantar wart
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