أسئلة الهيئة السعودية للتخصصات الصحية | الاحياء الدقيقة (الميكروبيولوجي) (7)

الأخصائيين

الأحياء الدقيقة  (الميكروبيولوجي) (7)

1.     Negative Mantoux test is important in

a.     Pulmonary Koch’s syndrome

b.     Sarcoidosis

c.      Carcinoma bronchus

d.     Lymphoma

2.     Bacilli Calmette Guerin (BCG) contains the avirulent strains of

a.     Human tubercle bacilli

b.     Avian tubercle bacilli

c.      Bovine tubercle bacilli

d.     A typical mycobacteria

3.     Drugs used against tuberculosis (TB) are

a.     Refampicin, Isoniazid

b.     Pyrazinamide, Streptomycin

c.      Both a and b

d.     None of these

4.     The greatest number of tubercle bacilli is present in

a.     Large sized tuberculomas

b.     Miliary tuberculosis

c.      Tuberculous lymphadinitis

d.     Tuberculous cavity of the lung

5.     Histoid Hansen is a veriety of

a.     Tuberculoid Leprosy

b.     Borderline tuberculoid

c.      Borderline lepramatous

d.     Lepronmetous leprosy

6.      Streptococcus pyogens produces all of the following lesions, except

a.     Impetigo contagiosa

b.     Erysipeals

c.      Boil

d.     Paronchia

7.     Causative agent of Scarlet fever:

a.     Staphylococcus aureus

b.     Streptococcus viridans

c.      Stre. pyogens

d.     None of these

8.     Rheumatic fever is most commonly caused by

a.     Str. Viridians

b.     Str. pyogenes

c.      Stph. aures

d.     None of these

9.     Penicillin is the drug of choice for

a.     Scarlet fever

b.     Whooping cough

c.      Brucellosis

d.     Cholera

10.                 In human being str. pneumoniae causes

a.     Septicaemia

b.     Paronychia

c.      Pneumomnia

d.     None of these

11.                 Virulence factor for Stre. pneumoniae:

a.     Capsular polysaccharide

b.     Specific soluble substance

c.      Vi-antigen

d.     Forsmann antigen

12.                 Conjunctivitis in a new born is caused by

a.     Streptococcus

b.     Pneumococcus

c.      Meningococci

d.     None of these

13.                 Influenza is belonging to

a.     Orthomyxoviridae

b.     Retroviridae

c.      Both a and b

d.     None of these

14.                 Influenza virus contains

a.     Eight segments of RNA

b.     Two strands of RNA

c.      Single RNA

d.     None of these

15.                  ‘Reye’s syndrome’ is caused by

a.     St.pneumoniae

b.     St.pyogenes

c.      Influenza

d.     None of these

16.           Geraman measles is also known as

a.     Rubella / 2-day measles

b.     Rubella / 3day measles

c.      Rubella / 4-day measles

d.     Rubella / 1-day measles

17.                 The commonest cause of rubella in new bornes

a.     Congential rubella

b.     Post natal rubella

c.      Expanded rubella syndrome (ERS)

d.     Both a and c

18.                 Mumps virus is belonging go

a.     Retroviriae

b.     Paramyxoviriae

c.      Orthomyxo viridae

d.     None of these

19.                 Measles is characterized by

a.     Negribodies

b.     Babes-Ernest granules

c.      Koplik’s spots

d.     Fever

20.                 Brucella causes

a.     Pertusis

b.     Plague

c.      Brucellosis

d.     None of these

21.                 Mediterranian fever is caused by

a.     M. tuberculosis

b.     S. typhi

c.      C.neoformans

d.     Brucella

22.                 Which of the following test is specific for Brucellosis?

a.     Frei

b.     Weil

c.      Castaneda strip

d.     Rose water

23.                 Malignant pustule is caused by

a.     Anthrax

b.     Tetanus

c.      Diphtheria

d.     None of these

24.                 The commonest form of anthrax in man is

a.     Alimentary

b.     Cutaneous

c.      Pulmonary

d.     Hepatic

25.                 The animals most frequently infected with anthrax are

a.     Sheep

b.     Cattle

c.      Goats

d.     All of these

26.                 Virus causing Rabies is

a.     Orthromyxo virus

b.     Paramyxo virus

c.      Rhbdo virus

d.     Toga viruses

27.                 Rhabdo viruses are belonging to the family:

a.     Rhabdo viridae

b.     Toga viridae

c.      Paramyxo viridae

d.     None of these

28.  Rabies Virus isolated from natural human or animal infection is termed as

a.     Street virus

b.     Fixed virus

c.      Both a and b

d.     None of these

29.                 Rabies virus can multiply in

a.     The central nervous system only

b.     The peripheral nerves

c.      Muscle tissues

d.     All the above

30. Neurological complications following rabies vaccines is common with

a.     Chick embryo vaccine

b.     HDCS vaccine

c.      Semple vaccine

d.     BPL vaccine

31.  Which anti rabic vaccine has been recommended by WHO as the most effective?

a.     Duck embryo vaccine

b.     HDCS vaccine

c.      Sheep brain vaccine

d.     BPL vaccine

32.                 The causative agent of tetanus is

a.     Clostridium botulinum

b.     Cl. tetani

c.      Cl. welchii

d.     Cl. perfringens

33.                 The mode of spread of tetanus neurotoxin from blood to brain is

a.     Via lymphaties

b.     Arterial blood

c.      Cranial nerves

d.     None of these

34.                 Tetanus is caused by spread of

a.     Exotoxin in sympathetic system

b.     Exotoxin in para sympathetic system

c.      Endotoxin in sympathetic system

d.     Endotoxin in parasympathetic system

35.                 The first symptom of tetanus is

a.     Lock jaw

b.     Trismus

c.      Anorexia

d.     Dyspagia

36.                 Of which clostridia, the neurotoxin is most powerful?

a.     Cl. tetani

b.     Cl. welchii

c.      Cl. botulism

d.     Cl. septicum

37.                 Toxin produced by C. botulism is

a.     Botulin

b.     Tetanospasmin

c.      Tetanolysin

d.     Cholaragen

38.                  “Toxic shock syndrome” is caused by the toxin of

a.     Staphylococcus aureus

b.     Streptococcus pyoge

c.      Vibrio cholerae

d.     Candida

39.                 Causative agent of syphilis

a.     T. pallidum

b.     T. pertenue

c.      T. carateum

d.     T. endemicum

40.                 Spirochaelis are sensitive to

a.     Penicillin

b.     Chloramphenicols

c.      Erythromycin

d.     Tetracyclins

41.                 Specific test for syphilis is

a.     VDRL test

b.     ELISA

c.      FTA

d.     None of these

42.                 VDRL test is a

a.     Agglutination test

b.     Slide flocculation test

c.      Precipitation test

d.     None of these

43. The following characters are true about Neisseria gonorrhoeae except

a.     Gram-negative, aerobic bacteria

b.     Non-motile diplococci

c.      Oxidase positive organisms

d.     Air borne infection

44.                 Gonorrhoea is

a.     Air borne disease

b.     Water borne disease

c.      Sexually transmitted venereal disease

d.     Both a and c

45.                 Bartholin cyst is caused by

a.     Candida

b.     Streptococcus

c.      Staphylococcus

d.     Gonococcus

46.                 Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes

a.     Urethritis

b.     Conjuctivitis

c.      Arthritis

d.     All of the above

47.                 Virulence in gonococcus is due to

a.     Pili

b.     Cell membrane

c.      Its cellular location

d.     Cyclic enzymes

48.                 Japanese encephalitis is caused by

a.     Toga Viruses

b.     Arbo Viruses

c.      Para myxo Viruses

d.     Ortho myxo Viruses

49.                 In India, Japanese b encephalitis was first isolated from the mosquitoes of the

a.     Culex tritaeriorhynchus

b.     Culex annulirostris

c.      Culex vishnui

d.     None of these

50.                 Dengue virus is transmitted from man to man by the

a.     Sand fly

b.     Ticks

c.      Aedes aegypti

d.     Culex

51.                 Yellow fever is caused by

a.     Bunya virus

b.     Calci virus

c.      Arbo virus

d.     None of these

52.                 Vector for leishmaniasis is

a.     Tick

b.     Mite

c.      Sand fly

d.     Tsetse fly

53.                 Splenomegaly is an important manifestation of

a.     Kala-agar

b.     Typhoid

c.      Malaria

d.     All of these

54.                 Which of the following is most severly affected in Kala-azar?

a.     Liver

b.     Spleen

c.      Adrenal gland

d.     Bone marrow

55.                 In India, malaria most often spreads by

a.     Anophels cucifacies

b.     Anopheles fluvatis

c.      Anopheles stephensi

d.     Anopheles minimus

56.                 Man is intermediate host for

a.     Guinea Worm

b.     Filaria

c.      Malaria

d.     Kala-azar

57.                 Which of the following preferably infects reticulocytes?

a.     P. ovale

b.     P.vivax

c.      P.falciparum

d.     P.malaria

58. In which type of material parasite in the exoerythrocytic stage absent?

a.     P.ovale

b.     P.vivax

c.      P.falciparum

d.     P. malariae

59.                 In falciparum malaria, all of the following stages are seen except

a.     Ring stage

b.     Schizont

c.      Gametocyte

d.     None of these

60.     Sporozite vaccine in malaria has

a.     Induces antibodies

b.     Prevents only asexual forms with reproduction

c.      No effects on clinical illness

d.     None of the above

يُتبع  Continued